| "IBM C2040-925 Installing and Configuring IBM Lotus Note Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) The default port for SSL over SMTP is which one of the following?a) 389b) 465c) 636d) 995Q) Which protocol must be enabled on the Domino server to support RSS feeds for mail files?a) RSSb) HTTPc) IMAPd) LDAPQ) Which task reads the mail.box for new or changed messages that require processing?a) SMTPb) Amgrc) Asminpd) RouterQ) Without manually restarting the SMTP server task, how often will it automatically check for changes to Configuration Settings documents?a) Neverb) Two minutesc) Hourlyd) Daily at midnightQ) Pedro, a Domino administrator, has enabled the Inbox maintenance feature from a mail policy document. How is the Inbox maintenance feature trigged and where does it run?a) The Inbox maintenance agent is enabled by default to run at 2 AM on all mail servers in the domain.b) The Administration Process periodically runs the Inbox Maintenance agent on each user's home server.c) Every time a user opens their mail file the Inbox maintenance agent runs locally on the user's workstation.d) The Inbox maintenance agent runs on a user's home server and is manually triggered by selecting Tools - Inbox maintenance from within their mail file."
Price: 144.99 |
| "IBM C2010-652 Smart Cloud Control V7.5 Fundamentals Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) By default, what are three of the required fields in a bulletin board message? (Choose three.)a) Subjectb) Messagec) Message IDd) Organizatione) Person Groupf) Expiration DateQ) What are two virtual machine images that must be deployed to implement the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk VM Image solution? (Choose two.)a) IBM DB2 virtual machineb) IBM Tivoli Directory Server virtual machinec) Administrative Workstation virtual machined) IBM Tivoli Integration Composer virtual machinee) IBM WebSphere Application Server virtual machineQ) Updating asset information in a controlled manner is part of the IT Asset Management process. Which two related processes provide information on required updates to assets? (Choose two.)a) Incident Managementb) Release Managementc) Security Managementd) Service Level Managemente) Service Request ManagementQ) Most loggers are inactive by default and set to which mode level?a) WARNb) DEBUGc) ERRORd) DEFAULTQ) Which statement best describes the Service Request Management functionality in IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5?a) A tool that provides end-to-end IT and Enterprise asset lifecycle management on a single integrated platform.b) A tool that enables users to request, deploy, monitor and manage cloud computing services. It also provides traceable approvals and processes.c) A tool that helps customers manage, audit, and coordinate change and configuration management processes using user interlaces and workflows that facilitate cross-silo cooperation.d) A tool that provides a comprehensive and modular approach to integrated service desk and service catalog management enabling IT personnel to improve the efficiency of service delivery and to drive down operating costs."
Price: 144.99 |
| "VMware 2V0-621D Certified Professional Data Center Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) An administrator wants to provide users restricted access. The users should only be able to perform the following tasks: Create and consolidate virtual machine snapshots Add/Remove virtual disks Snapshot Management Which default role in vCenter Server would meet the administrator's requirements for the users?a) Virtual machine userb) Virtual machine power userc) Virtual Datacenter administratord) VMware Consolidated Backup userQ) Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)a) Administratorb) Network Administratorc) Datastore Consumerd) Read-OnlyQ) An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any privileges to it. Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.)a) System.Viewb) System.Anonymousc) System.Userd) System.ReadOnlyQ) An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines. Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?a) Datastore.Allocate Spaceb) Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshotc) Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshotd) Datastore.Browse DatastoreQ) An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects. What is true about the permissions on the object?a) The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded.b) The permissions are combined from both parent objectsc) No permissions are applied from the parent objectsd) The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects."
Price: 174.99 |
| "Vmware 2V0-641 Certify Professional Network Virtualiz Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which statement describes proper packet processing of layer 3 traffic in an NSX for vSphere topology?a) All packets are processed by the distributed router. No packets are processed by the Logical Router Control VM.b) Only packets requiring routing to another VM on the same host are processed by the distributed router. Other packets are processed by the Logical Router Control VM.c) Only packets requiring routing to another VM on a different host are processed by the distributed router. Other packets are processed by the Logical Router Control VM.d) All packets requiring routing are processed by performing a lookup in the Logical Router Control VM and then forwarded.Q) What are two advantages for using NSX for vSphere's Logical Switching? (Choose two.)a) Expands the number of available VLANs.b) Allows for Layer 2 switching over Layer 3 infrastructure.c) Distributes Layer 3 data across multiple hypervisorsd) Provides for 10,000 logical segments.Q) Using VMware's best practices, choose two statements that define the best solution for scaling layer 2 services for the virtual network. (Choose two.)a) Employ a layer 2 switched network.b) Employ a layer 3 switched networkc) Use GRE for an overlay network.d) Use VXLAN for an overlay networkQ) Which component provides for installation of NSX hypervisor kernel components and user world agents?a) NSX Controllerb) NSX Edge Virtual Appliancec) NSX Managerd) vCloud Automation CenteQ) Which NSX service or feature provides optimized management of virtual machine broadcast (ARP) traffic?a) NSX Controllerb) NSX Managerc) Edge Services Gatewayd) VTEP"
Price: 179.99 |
| "VMware VCPC550 Certified Professional vCloud Automation Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which workflow should the administrator follow to create a High Availability (HA) cluster?a) Select a datacenter, create a cluster in the datacenter, add resources to the cluster, enable HA, and configure HA-specific settingsb) Select a resource pool, create an HA Cluster in the resource pool, add resources to the cluster, configure HA-specific settings, and enable HAc) Select a datacenter, create an HA Cluster, add resources to the cluster, configure HA-specific settings, and enable HAd) Select a resource pool, create a cluster in the pool, add resources to the cluster, enable HA, and configure HA-specific settingsQ) What should an administrator do to configure multi-pathing using software iSCSI?a) Bind the VMkernel ports to the software iSCSI initiatorb) Configure Zoning between the hosts and SAN switchesc) Configure NIC teaming on the associated uplinksd) Ensure jumbo frames are enabled end-to-endQ) A vSphere administrator needs to upgrade a single extent VMFS3 datastore to VMFS5 and expand it to 4TB in size. The storage administrator has already expanded the underlying LUN to 4TB. Which steps should the vSphere administrator take?a) Expand the VMFS3 datastore to 4TB and then upgrade to VMFS5b) Upgrade the datastore to VMFS5, manually change the partition scheme to GPT, and then expand the datastore to 4TBc) Upgrade the datastore to VMFS5 and then expand it to 4TBd) Change the block size of the VMFS3 datastore to 1MB, upgrade the datastore to VMFS5, and expand it to 4TBQ) Which VLAN configuration requires the a switch port to be configured as an access port?a) Private VLANb) External Switch Taggingc) Virtual Guest Taggingd) Virtual Switch TaggingQ) During a physical network reconfiguration, an ESXi host briefly lost connection to the management network. High Availability (HA) began powering off the virtual machines residing on the affected host to be restarted on an unaffected host in the cluster. Which setting should the administrator configure to prevent this type of HA failover during planned maintenance?a) Host isolation responseb) Host monitoringc) VM monitoringd) Admission control"
Price: 169.99 |
| "ECCouncil 312-49 Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) What term is used to describe a cryptographic technique for embedding information into something else for the sole purpose of hiding that information from the casual observer?a) rootkitb) key escrowc) steganographyd) OffsetQ) During the course of an investigation, you locate evidence that may prove the innocence of the suspect of the investigation. You must maintain an unbiased opinion and be objective in your entire fact finding process. Therefore, you report this evidence. This type of evidence is known as:a) Inculpatoryevidenceb) Mandatory evidencec) Exculpatory evidenced) Terrible evidenceQ) If you discover a criminal act while investigating a corporate policy abuse, it becomes a publicsector investigation and should be referred to law enforcement?a) TRUEb) FALSEQ) What binary coding is used most often for e-mail purposes?a) MIMEb) Uuencodec) IMAPd) SMTP"
Price: 159.99 |
| "ECCouncil 712-50 Certified CISO Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Credit card information, medical data, and government records are all examples of:a) Confidential/Protected Informationb) Bodily Informationc) Territorial Informationd) Communications InformationQ) The establishment of a formal risk management framework and system authorization program is essential. The LAST step of the system authorization process is:a) Contacting the Internet Service Provider for an IP scopeb) Getting authority to operate the system from executive managementc) Changing the default passwordsd) Conducting a final scan of the live system and mitigating all high and medium level vulnerabilitiesQ) The single most important consideration to make when developing your security program, policies, and processes is:a) Budgeting for unforeseen data compromisesb) Streamlining for efficiencyc) Alignment with the businessd) Establishing your authority as the Security ExecutiveQ) An organization's Information Security Policy is of MOST importance becausea) it communicates management's commitment to protecting information resourcesb) it is formally acknowledged by all employees and vendorsc) it defines a process to meet compliance requirementsd) it establishes a framework to protect confidential informationQ) Developing effective security controls is a balance between:a) Risk Management and Operationsb) Corporate Culture and Job Expectationsc) Operations and Regulationsd) Technology and Vendor Management"
Price: 169.99 |
| "ECCouncil EC0-349 Computer Hack Forensic Investigator Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) What happens when a file is deleted by a Microsoft operating system using the FAT file system? a) only the reference to the file is removed from the FAT b) the file is erased and cannot be recovered c) a copy of the file is stored and the original file is erased d) the file is erased but can be recovered Q) What term is used to describe a cryptographic technique for embedding information into something else for the sole purpose of hiding that information from the casual observer?a) rootkitb) key escrow c) steganographyd) Offset Q) During the course of an investigation, you locate evidence that may prove the innocence of the suspect of the investigation. You must maintain an unbiased opinion and be objective in your entire fact finding process. Therefore, you report this evidence. This type of evidence is known as:a) Inculpatory evidenceb) Mandatory evidencec) Exculpatory evidence d) Terrible evidence Q) If you discover a criminal act while investigating a corporate policy abuse, it becomes a publicsector investigation and should be referred to law enforcement? a) TRUEb) FALSE"
Price: 169.99 |
| "ECCouncil ECSS Certified Security Specialist Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Firewalking is a technique that can be used to gather information about a remote network protected by a firewall. This technique can be used effectively to perform information gathering attacks. In this technique, an attacker sends a crafted packet with a TTL value that is set to expire one hop past the firewall. Which of the following are pre-requisites for an attacker to conduct firewalking? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.a) ICMP packets leaving the network should be allowed.b) An attacker should know the IP address of the last known gateway before the firewall.c) There should be a backdoor installed on the network.d) An attacker should know the IP address of a host located behind the firewall.Q) Which of the following security protocols are based on the 802.11i standard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.a) WEPb) WPA2c) WPAd) WEP2Q) Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for protocol conversion, data encryption/decryption, and data compression?a) Transport layerb) Presentation layerc) Data-link layerd) Network layerQ) You are responsible for security at a company that uses a lot of Web applications. You are most concerned about flaws in those applications allowing some attacker to get into your network. What method would be best for finding such flaws?a) Vulnerability scanningb) ""Manual penetration testingc) ""Automated penetration testingd) Code reviewQ) Which of the following representatives of incident response team takes forensic backups of the systems that are the focus of the incident?a) Lead investigatorb) Information security representativec) Technical representatived) Legal representative"
Price: 179.99 |
| "AWS ANS-C00 Advanced Networking Speciality Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Your company is planning on setting up a VPN connection between a VPC hosted in AWS and their on premise data center. There is a need to ensure the VPN connection is highly available and at the same time to ensure cost is kept to a minimum. What would you do to ensure these requirements are kept?multiple-choicea) Create 2 VPN connections for high availabilityb) Create an additional Direct connect connectionc) Create an additional VPC peering connectiond) VPN connections are already high availableQ) Your company is planning on deploying an EC2 instance which will be used to route VPN traffic to an on- premise data center. In such a scenario what is the responsibility of AWS?a) Ensuring high availability of the EC2 Instanceb) Ensuring high availability of the VPN connectionc) Ensuring the health of the underlying physical hostd) Configuration of the IPSec protocolQ) You are using a Windows Server 2012 in your on-premise location as a customer gateway. Youve setup the Virtual Private gateway and the VPN connection. You have also setup the VPN configuration on the Windows Server 2012 machine. But when you check the status of the tunnel in the AWS Console, it still shows as down. What needs to be done to ensure that the tunnel is in the UP state. ?a) Issue a ping command request from the Windows Server 2012 deviceb) From the AWS Console, choose the VPN connection , choose Actions->Bring up tunnelc) From the AWS Console, choose the Virtual Private gateway. choose Actions->Bring up tunneld) Ensure BGP routing protocol is setup on the Windows Server 2012 deviceQ) Your company has a set of AWS Direct Connect connections. They want to aggregate the bandwidth of these connections to ensure that a large amount of data can be sent through the pipe. So a decision has been made to set up a link aggregation group. What are the factors that need to be considered when setting up the LAG group? Choose 2 answers from the options given below.a) You have to ensure that the existing AWS Direct connect connections have the same bandwidthb) You have to ensure that a VPN connection is also in place to attach to the LAG groupc) You have to ensure that all AWS Direct connect connections terminate at the same AWS endpointd) You have to ensure that all AWS Direct connect connections terminate at different AWS endpointQ) Your company has setup an AWS Direct Connect connection with the help of an AWS Partner. The customer gateway Is In an on-premise data center. Your operations department needs to be informed whenever the Direct Connect connection is down. How can you achieve this?a) Use the AWS Direct Connect tunnel logging facility to check for any failuresb) Use Cloud watch metrics to check for the state of the tunnelc) Use Cloud watch logs to check for the state of the tunneld) You will anyway be notified if the AWS Direct Connect connection is down."
Price: 149.99 |
| "AWS BDS-C00 Certified Big Data Speciality Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) You need to load a lot of data once a week from your on-premise datacenter on to AWS Redshift. Which of the below AWS-Managed Cloud Data Migration Tools can be used for this data transfer in simple, fast, and secure way. Choose 2 answers from the options given below. Please select:a) Data Pipelineb) Direct Connectc) Snowballd) Import/Export to AWSQ) Which of the below components of a Red shift cluster, if down, can render the Red shift cluster as unavailable? Please select:a) Master Nodeb) Core Nodec) Leader Noded) Compute NodeQ) There is a requirement to perform SQL querying along with complex queries on different backend data that include Red shift, My SQL Hive on EMR. H3, and PostgreSQL Which of the below tool can run queries on all the different platforms for your daily adhoc analysis? Please select:a) EMRb) Presto Sc) Quick Sightd) AthenaQ) You need to filter and transform incoming messages coming from a smart sensor you have connected with AWS. Once messages are received, you need to store them as time series data in Dynamo DB. Which AWS service can you use?a) loT Message brokerb) loT Rules Enginec) loT Device Shadowd) loT Device Shadow serviceQ) You run a data processing EMR Hadoop job once for several hours a day then terminate it after job done. The EMR cluster is running in AWS that uses EMRFS on S3 for the data. The data in S3 is constantly changing and you need to ensure the updated data Is reflected In EMRFS? You also want to the keep the data after the EMR cluster terminated. How can this be achieved?a) Consider using EBS Volumes to store the data instead.b) Consider using Instance storage with cluster termination protection.c) Enable versioning on the S3 bucket.d) Enable Consistent Viewse) Enable recycling on the EMR cluster"
Price: 174.99 |
| "AWS SCS-C01 Certified Security Speciality Practice Test" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) A company is planning on extending their on-premise AWS Infrastructure to the AWS Cloud. They need to have a solution that would give core benefits of traffic encryption and ensure latency is kept to a minimum Which of the following would help fulfill this requirement? Choose 2 answers from the options given below Please select:a) AWS VPNb) AWS VPC Peeringc) AWS NAT gatewaysd) AWS Direct ConnectQ) How can you ensure that instance in an VPC does not use AWS DNS for routing DNS requests. You want to use your own managed DNS instance. How can this be achieved?a) Change the existing DHCP options setb) Create a new DHCP options set and replace the existing onec) Change the route table for the VPCd) change the subnet configuration to allow DNS requests from the new DNS ServerQ) A windows machine in one VPC needs to join the AD domain in another VPC. VPC Peering has been established. But the domain join is not working. What Is the other step that needs to be followed to ensure that the AD domain join can work as intended Please select:a) Change the VPC peering connection to a VPN connectionb) Change the VPC peering connection to a Direct Connect connectionc) Ensure the security groups for the AD hosted subnet has the right rule for relevant subnetsd) Ensure that the AD is placed In a public subnetQ) You need to have a cloud security device which would allow to generate encryption keys based on FIPS 140-2 Level 3. select Which of the following can be used for this purpose. ?a) AWS KMSb) AWS Customer Keysc) AWS managed keysd) AWS Cloud HSMQ) You need to have a requirement to store objects in an 53 bucket with a key that is automatically managed and rotated. Which of the following can be used for this purpose?a) AWS KMSb) AWS S3 Server side encryptionc) AWS Customer Keysd) AWS Cloud HSM"
Price: 144.99 |
| "AWS SAA-C01 Solution Architect Associate Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) You are trying to launch an EC2 instance, however the instance seems to go into a terminated status immediately. What would probably not be a reason that this is happening?a) The AMI is missing a required partb) The snapshot is corrupt.c) You need to create storage in EBS firstd) You have reached your volume limitQ) You have set up an Auto Scaling group. The cool down period for the Auto Scaling group Is 7 minutes. The first instance is launched after 3 minutes, while the second instance is launched after 4 minutes. How many minutes after the first instance is launched will Auto Scaling accept another scaling act my request?a) 11 minutesb) 7 minutesc) 10 minutesd) 14 minutesQ) In Amazon EC2 Container Service components, what is the name of a logical grouping of container instances on which you can place tasks?a) A clusterb) A container instancec) A containerd) A task definitionQ) In the context of AWS support, why must an EC2 instance be unreachable for 20 minutes rather than allowing customers to open tickets immediately?a) Because most reach ability issues are resolved by automated processes in less than 20 minutesb) Because all EC2 instances are unreachable for 20 minutes every day when AWS does routine maintenancec) Because all EC2 instances are unreachable for 20 minutes when first launchedd) Because of all the reasons listed hereQ) Can a user get a notification of each instance start I terminate configured with Auto Scaling?a) Yes, if configured with the Launch Configuration?b) Yes, alwaysc) Yes, if configured with the Auto Scaling groupd) No"
Price: 169.99 |
| "AWS CLF-C01 Certified Cloud Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which AWS services can be used to store files? Choose 2 answers from the options given belowa) Amazon Cloud Watchb) Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)c) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)d) AWS Confige) Amazon AthenaQ) Which of the following services uses AWS edge locations?a) Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)b) Amazon Cloud Frontc) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)d) AWS Storage GatewayQ) Which of the following is a benefit of Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) over physical servers?a) Automated backupb) Paying only for what you usec) The ability to choose hardware vendorsd) Root /administrator accessQ) Which AWS service provides infrastructure security optimization recommendations?a) AWS Price List Application Programming Interface (API) b) Reserved Instancesc) AWS Trusted Advisord) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) Spot FleetQ) Which service allows for the collection and tracking of metrics for AWS services?a) Amazon Cloud Frontb) Amazon Cloud Searchc) Amazon Cloud Watchd) Amazon Machine Learning (Amazon ML)"
Price: 154.99 |
| "AWS SOA-C00 SysOps Administrator Associate Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) You are currently hosting multiple applications in a VPC and have logged numerous port scans coming in from a specific IP address block. Your security team has requested that all access from the offending IP address block be denied tor the next 24 hours. Which of the following is the best method to quickly and temporarily deny access from the specified IP address block?a) Create an AD policy to modify Windows Firewall settings on all hosts in the VPC to deny access from the IP address blockb) Modify the Network ACLs associated with all public subnets in the VPC to deny access from the IP address blockc) Add a rule to all of the VPC 5 Security Groups to deny access from the IP address block.d) Modify the Windows Firewall settings on all Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) that your organization uses in that VPC to deny access from the P address blockQ) When preparing for a compliance assessment of your system built inside of AWS. what are three best-practices for you to prepare for and audit? (Choose 3 answers)a) Gather evidence of your IT operational controlsb) Request and obtain applicable third-party audited AWS compliance reports and certificationsc) Request and obtain a compliance and security tour of an AWS data center for a pre assessment security reviewd) Request and obtain approval from AWS to perform relevant network scans and in-depth penetration tests of your system's Instances and endpointse) Schedule meetings with AWS third-party auditors to provide evidence of AWS compliance that maps to your control objectiveQ) You have started a new job and are reviewing your company*s infrastructure on AWS You notice one web application where they have an Elastic Load Balancer (&B) in front of web instances in an Auto Scaling Group When you check the metrics for the ELB in Cloud Watch you see four healthy instances In Availability Zone (AZ) A and zero in AZ B There are zero unhealthy instances. What do you need to fix to balance the instances across AZs?a) Set the ELB to only be attached to another AZb) Make sure Auto Scaling is configured to launch in both AZsc) Make sure your AMI is available in both AZ5d) Make sure the maximum size of the Auto Scaling Group is greater than 4Q) You have been asked to leverage Amazon VPC BC2 and SOS to implement an application that submits and receives mil ions of messages per second to a message queue. You want to ensure your application has sufficient bandwidth between your EC2 instances and SQS Which option will provide (he most scalable solution for communicating between the application and SOS?a) Ensure the application instances are properly configured with an Elastic Load Balancerb) Ensure the application instances are launched in private subnets with the EBSoptimized option enabledc) Ensure the application instances are launched in public subnets with the associatepublic-IP address: true option enabledd) Launch application instances in private subnets with an Auto Scaling group and Auto Scaling triggers configured to watch the SOS queue sizeQ) You have identified network throughput as a bottleneck on your ml small EC2 instance when uploading data Into Amazon S3 In the same region. How do you remedy this situation?a) Add an additional ENIb) Change to a larger Instancec) Use Direct Connect between EC2 and S3d) Use EBS PIOPS on the local volume"
Price: 174.99 |
| "AWS DVA-C00 Certified Developer Associate Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) If you are connecting to AWS from a computer, not an EC2 instance, you need to create an AWS user, attach permissions, and use the API access key and secret access key in your code. Choose the correct answer from the options below ?a) TRUEb) FALSEQ) How much data can be stored in 53? Choose the correct answer from the options below Please select:a) 500 TBb) 500 GBc) SGBd) No limits to the amount of data 7Q) AMIs can be shared to individual AWS accounts. Choose the correct answer from the options below Please select:a) TRUEb) FALSEQ) An lAM role, when assigned to an EC2 instance, will allow code to be executed on that instance without API access keys. Choose the correct answer from the options below Please select:a) TRUEb) FALSEQ) To enable a VPC EC2 instance to be publicly accessible without a NAT instance or NAT Gateway, it must have a public IP address inside of a subnet that has a route to an internet gateway. Choose the correct answer from the options below ?a) TRUEb) FALSE"
Price: 179.99 |
| "AWS DVA-C01 Certified Developer Associate Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) A developer is writing an application that will run on -premises. but must access AWS services through an AWS SDK. How can the Developer allow the SDK to access the AWS services?a) Create an lAM EC2 role with correct permissions and assign it to the on-premises serverb) Create an PAM user with correct permissions, generate an access key and store it in aws credentialsc) Create an lAM role with correct permissions and request an STS token to assume the roled) Create an lAM user with correct permissions, generate an access key and store it in a Dynamo DB table.Q) A Developer is migrating an on-premises web application to the AWS Cloud. The application currently runs sh on a 32-processor server and stores session state In memory. On Friday afternoons the server runs at 75% CPU utilization, but only about 5% CPU utilization at other times. Show should the Developer change to code to better take advantage of running in the cloud?a) Compress the session state data in memoryb) Store session state on EC2 instance Store 1c) Encrypt the session state data In memoryd) Store session state in an Elastic Cache cluster.Q) An organization's application needs to monitor application specific events with a standard AWS service. The service should capture the number of logged in users and trigger events accordingly. During peak times. monitoring frequency will occur every 10 seconds. What should be done to meet these requirements?a) Create an Amazon SNS notificationb) Create a standard resolution custom Amazon Cloud Watch logc) Create a high resolution custom Amazon Cloud Watch metricd) Create a custom Amazon Cloud Trail log.Q) A Developer is writing an application that runs on EC2 instances and stores 2 GB objects in an S3 bucket. The Developer wants to minimize the time required to upload each item. Which API should the Developer use to minimize upload time?a) Multipart Uploadb) Batch Get Itemc) Batch Write Itemd) Put itemQ) A Developer working on an AWS Code Build project wants to override a build command as part of a build run to test a change. The developer has access to run the builds but does not have access to edit the Code Build project What process should the Developer use to override the build command?a) Update the buildspec.yml configuration file that is part of the source code and run a new build.b) Update the command in the Build Commands section during the build run in the AWS console.c) Run the start build AWS CU command with build spec-location property set to the new buildspec.yml filed) Update the build spec property in the Start Build API to override the build command during build run. Use the AWS CLI command to specify different parameters that need to be run for the build."
Price: 164.99 |
| "SAP C_TB1200_88 Certified Associate Business Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) What happens when a default payment method for customers is changed in the General Settings?a) Any new customer master records will default to this payment method, but existing records will not change.b) New and existing customer master records will automatically receive this payment method.c) When a new customer master record is created, a pop up box will appear with a choice of available payment methods listed in General Settings.d) When a new customer master record is created, the default payment method is assigned and cannot be changed.Q) The sales manager wants to be informed when a sales employee issues an order that would produce a gross profit less than 25%. However, he does not want the sales process to be blocked. What is the easiest way to implement this?a) Use an alert with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.b) Schedule the Sales Analysis report to run when the gross profit is below the threshold.c) Add a user-defined field to the sales order document, with a query to report when the gross profit is less than 25%d) Use an approval procedure with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.Q) During Business Blueprint, the customer indicated they want to run perpetual inventory with moving average valuation method. They went into production a week ago and they now want some existing products to use standard cost valuation instead. How can this be accomplished?a) The moving average valuation method is only a default, and can be changed to standard cost for an item at any time.b) Once an item has been imported into SAP Business One, the valuation method is fixed and the items must be deleted and re-imported to change the method.c) As long as there are no open transactions and there is no inventory for the item, they can change the valuation method.d) They can move the items to an item group with the standard cost valuation method. This automatically changes the valuation method.Q) Mike from Miller Inc. created a forecast showing a need for 100 staplers by June 1. Currently there are 10 staplers in inventory. Existing sales orders have a committed quantity of 50 staplers. When Mike runs MRP to produce a production order to manufacture staplers, the recommended production order is for 90 staplers. Why does MRP recommend this amount?a) The maximum stock requirement is set to 90.b) MRP never considers sales orders as demand.c) The minimum stock requirement is set to 10.d) The planning definitions are set to consume forecastsQ) The customer successfully went live last week. What is the best method for the implementation consultant to maintain the continuous reliability of the customer system?a) Install the Service Managerb) Create a Service Level Agreementc) Activate the services of the remote support platform for SAP Business Oned) Upgrade the customer system to the latest patch level"
Price: 144.99 |
| "SAP C_TBIT44_71 Development Consultant Net Weaver Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are supported? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.a) SMTPb) HTTPc) IMAP4d) POP3Q) You are implementing an IDoc-based scenario using SAP Netweaver PI and more specifically the sender IDoc adapter. Which of these steps are mandatory for the sender IDoc adapter to function properly? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.a) IDoc metadata must be imported into the Enterprise Services Repositoryb) The Logical System name (ALE name) for the Business System must be defined in the SLD.c) A sender communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.d) An RFC destination must be defined on the sender system, pointing to the Integration Server client.Q) Assume that your customer has a scenario in which a database table needs to be queried (i.e. to perform a SELECT statement and obtain the result set). What are the viable options for implementing this with the PI JDBC adapter? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.a) Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.b) Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.c) Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database synchronouslyd) Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.Q) Which statements are correct when using the Receiver File adapter to process XML messages? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.a) The messages are processed based on a poll cycle.b) The adapter can convert the XML payload into a flat file.c) The adapter can FTP the file to a remote directory.d) The quality of service can be 'best effort' (BE) only.Q) You have implemented a scenario where IDocs are posted to an ERP system using the receiver IDoc adapter. Which statements correctly describe the receiver IDoc adapter of SAP NetWeaver PI? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.a) IDoc packages are not supported, unless all IDocs are collected by BPMSpecific fields in the b) IDoc control record can be overwritten using the 'header mapping' functionality in the Receiver Agreement.c) Quality of service EOIO (exactly once in order) is supported, provided that the target system is a SAP Web AS 6.40 or above.d) If the target system is SAP Web AS 6.20 or under, then the quality of service BE (best effort) and EO (exactly once) can be used.e) A receiver communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder."
Price: 144.99 |
| "SAP C_TFIN52_66 Certify Associate Financial Accounting Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) How do you implement parallel accounting in asset accounting?a) By using an extra chart of accountsb) By using two different charts of depreciationc) By using two asset classesd) By using two depreciation areasQ) A customer wants to define a chart of depreciation.How do you recommend setting up depreciation areas?a) Based on company codesb) Based on the relevant chart of accountsc) Based on the aims of internal or external reportingd) Based on relevant currenciesQ) Which account assignment objects can be maintained directly in the asset master data in SAP ERP 6.0 EhP5 (Enhancement Package 5) with new G/L activated? (Choose two)a) Asset networkb) Segmentc) Profit centerd) Depreciation centerQ) You want to capitalize an Asset under Construction (AuC) using the line item settlement process. However, the settlement does not work. What could be the reason? (Choose three)a) The settlement profile does not allow assets as valid receivers.b) The Depreciation Engine is not activec) The status of the AuC is set to Summary Managementd) The AuC has not been released with the status ""Technically complete"".e) There is no settlement profile assigned to the company codeQ) What does the SAP Web AS provide?a) J2EE and ABAP in a single environmentb) Real-time data exchange with all SAP systemsc) Master data harmonization across SAP NetWeaverd) Storage of all transactional documents in one single database"
Price: 159.99 |
| "SAP C_THR12_66 Certified Associate HCM Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which of the following are standard prerequisites for an employee to use the Manager's Desktop? (Choose three.)a) The employee holds the ""chief position"" of an organizational unit.b) The employee is designated as a manager using the organizational key on IT0001 (Organizational Assignment).c) The organizational structure has been developed for the company.d) The employee has an active user ID assigned on IT0105 (Communication).Q) You need to create a custom personnel calculation rule (PCR) to cumulate several wage types that may have different characteristics. Which operations must be included in your rule?a) ELIMI and ADDWTb) AVERA and DIVIDc) ELIMI and MULTId) ROUND and ADDWTQ) A customer wants to implement SAP Payroll and asks you to determine how many payroll areas they will need. Which criteria do you consider to complete this task? (Choose two.)a) The pay frequenciesb) The number of company codesc) The kind of employees (salaried, hourly)d) The pay period datesQ) During the payroll run, you discover that some employees are missing from the run, without any warning or error messages being output. Which items would you check to find out why? (Choose two.)a) IT0000 (Personnel Actions) for incorrect employment statusb) IT0008 (Basic Pay) for incorrect pay scale type/area assignmentc) IT0001 (Organizational Assignment) for incorrect payroll area assignment d) Payroll control record for incorrect personnel numbersQ) Due to a promotion, an employee receives a salary increase on IT0008 (Basic Pay) in the middleof the payroll period. Which processing class and personnel calculation rule will ensure that the wage type is prorated accordingly?a) Processing class 01 queried in personnel calculation rule X010b) Processing class 20 queried in personnel calculation rule XPPFc) Processing class 10 queried in personnel calculation rule XVALd) Processing class 03 queried in personnel calculation rule X020"
Price: 149.99 |
| "SAP C_TSCM42_66 Certify Associate Production Plng & Mfg Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) You use a planning time fence and fixing type 1. You receive a customer order with a material availability date within the planning time fence. What do you have to consider in this scenario?a) Planned orders that are created by requirements planning are shifted to the end of the planning time fence.b) Requirements planning considers only changes that are relevant for scheduling within the planning time fence.c) The MRP controller cannot create planned orders within the planning time fence.d) Planned orders are created within the planning time fence and automatically firmed by requirements planningQ) Which Customizing element controls the determination of planned costs in production orders?a) Costing variantb) Calculation procedurec) Settlement profiled) Accounting typeQ) Which issue can occur if the lot size-dependent in-house production time in the material master is not updated after changing the routing?a) Lead time scheduling cannot take place.b) Requirements planning creates an appropriate exception message in basic dates scheduling.c) Subsequent capacity planning is no longer possible due to the obsolete scheduling parameters.d) Dependent requirements request the components from the bill of materials at wrong times when using basic dates scheduling.Q) Where in the SAP ECC system can you define production versions?a) In the bill of materialb) In the work centerc) In the material masterd) In the routingQ) When maintaining a work center, formulas can be assigned in the scheduling view. Formulas use formula parameters for calculation. What can be the origin of the formula parameters used for scheduling? (Choose three)a) Standard values in the operations of routingsb) General operation values of routingsc) General values from work scheduling view of the material masterd) User-defined fields in the operation of routings"
Price: 174.99 |
| "SAP C_TSCM52_66 Certify Associate Procurement Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) What data is displayed in the list of inventory differences? (Choose three.)a) Book quantityb) Quantity countedc) Difference quantityd) Current plant stockQ) For posting inventory differences, you can define tolerance groups. What tolerances can you define? (Choose two.)a) Maximum difference amount for each Physical Inventory documentb) Maximum difference amount for each Physical Inventory document itemc) Maximum percentage value variance for each Physical Inventory document item d) Maximum difference amount for each storage locatione) Maximum quantity variance for each Physical Inventory document itemQ) What special features apply to purchase orders of services (item category D)? (Choose two.)a) Unknown account assignment is allowed.b) The price can be determined from the service conditions.c) All service lines must have the same account assignment.d) When the service entry sheet is created only services contained in the purchase order can be entered.Q) You have set the rejection indicator in a quotation item. Can you still create a purchase order with reference to this quotation item?a) No, a quotation item for which the rejection indicator is set cannot be converted into a purchase order.b) Yes, but you have to enter the price in the purchase order manually since it is not copied from the quotation in this case.c) Yes, you can create the purchase order regardless of the rejection indicator.d) No, you have to maintain a new quotation first.Q) You want to create a list of all purchase orders for which you have not yet received an invoice. What can you use to find these specific purchase orders when entering your criteria for the search query?a) Scope of listb) Selection parameterc) Layoutd) Breakdown"
Price: 154.99 |
| "SAP C_TSCM62_65 Certified Associate Order Fulfilment Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which of the following statements regarding outline agreement processes are correct?a) A scheduling agreement contains fixed delivery dates and quantities.b) A value contract defines that your customer agrees to purchase a fixed total value (target amount) of goods and services during the defined period.c) A value contract defines that your customer agrees to purchase a fixed quantity of goods and services during the defined period.d) When creating sales documents, the system can check if open contracts exist for the respective customer.Q) Which of the following statements regarding quantity contracts is correct?a) Quantity contract items will show up in the delivery due list when ready for deliveryb) Quantity contracts are delivered using a contract release order.c) Different requested delivery dates are maintained in the schedule lines of the quantity contract.d) Quantity contracts contain details about the customer's requested delivery dates.Q) Which of the following settings in Customizing do you have to maintain for a scheduling agreement?a) A schedule line categoryb) A product hierarchyc) A billing pland) The copying control for the release orderQ) Which of the following elements are necessary to determine the pricing procedure in a sales document? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.a) Condition master datab) The document pricing procedure of the sales document typec) Sales aread) The customer pricing procedure from the customer masterQ) Which of the following statements relating to condition records are correct? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.a) The scale basis can be structured based on value or quantity among others.b) Changing a determined condition within the sales order leads to an update of the respective condition record master data.c) Condition records can be maintained for all condition types that have assigned an access sequence.d) A lower and upper limit can be defined for each condition record."
Price: 169.99 |
| "SAP C_HANAIMP_1 Certified Application Associate HANA Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) You want to test the quality of SAP HANA data by using a set of results from the source system. How can you retrieve the required data from SAP HANA? (Choose three)a) Use SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT).b) Use the data preview in SAP HANA studioc) Use an SAP BusinessObjects client tool (such as Explorer or Web Intelligence).d) Use the database schema _SYS_REPO.e) Write and execute an appropriate SQL statement.Q) What are benefits of using a business layer on top of SAP HANA? (Choose two)a) An extra layer of granular securityb) Improved database calculation speedc) Fast throughput via BICS connectivityd) Users can use business names instead of technical namesQ) You want to report on data from SAP HANA using MS Excel. How can you achieve this? (Choose two)a) Select an analytic view using the Data Connection wizard.b) Create a ODBC connection between SAP HANA and MS Excel.c) Select an attribute view using the Data Connection wizard.d) Create an ODBO connection between SAP HANA and MS Excel.Q) You are building a calculation view and want to select data from an analytic view. How can you achieve better performance for this requirement?a) Use CE functionsb) Use SQL statementsc) Use L programmingd) Use table indexingQ) Which connectivity options can you use to create a SAP BusinessObjects universe on SAP HANA? (Choose two)a) OLAP connection using MDXb) Relational connection using BICSc) Relational connection using ODBCd) Relational connection using MDXe) Relational connection using JDBC"
Price: 144.99 |
| "SAP P_HCMTM_64 Certified Professional HCM Talent Mngt Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) A customer has implemented SAP HCM Talent Management Suite and wants to have detailed view into the talent and organizational data using pie charts and bar graphs for strategic decisions. What do you recommend?a) Implement SAP OrgChart by Nakisa.b) Implement SAP Succession Planning by Nakisa.c) Implement SAP OrgModeler by Nakisa.d) Implement SAP Talent Visualization by Nakisa.Q) A customer is implementing SAP ERP 6.0 EhP4 and wants to migrate all open requisitions from a legacy system. What steps are needed to do this? (Choose two)a) Create E-Recruiting Users.b) Load employee master data using Infotype series 51XX.c) Create requisitions and assignments.d) Execute the ALE transaction SALE.Q) A customer wants to design the hierarchical representation of their global business organization. They use Portal, MSS and Workflow to manage process approvals. How do you set up the OM structure to alleviate concerns with crossing country and legal entity lines?a) Create multiple OM structures with different statuses, one for Reporting relationships and one for country relationships.b) Create a custom object and relationship to house the country code and legal entity and attach it to the top organizational unit of the business.c) Design the OM to follow the lines of business and allow the Enterprise structure to handle any country and legal entity concerns.d) Build the OM structure on a country alignment basis, then on the business basis.Q) The customer would like to have reports from Talent Management that enables them to analyze the talent distribution across the population by age, ethnicity and seniority. What is the best solution?a) Initiate AdHoc Query and write the reports.b) Initiate Flexible Employee Data to produce the reportsc) Use BW standard reports for Talent Management.d) Use SAP Query to create the reports.Q) How can a hiring manager initiate an internal requisition?a) Define the internal requisition through MSS.b) Define the posting attributes as one of the activities.c) Define the internal posting on publication attributes.d) Define the internal posting requirement during vacant position creation."
Price: 144.99 |
| "SAP C_TADM51702 Technology Associate System Admin Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Your customer is configuring a Central User Administration (CUA) in AS ABAP connecting to multiple child systems. Changes of the attribute ""mobile telephone number"" in the user master record in one child system should be transferred to the other relevant child systems. Which setting for the attribute ""mobile telephone number"" in parameters for field distribution via transaction SCUM (Central User Administration) do you use to fulfill this requirement?a) Globalb) Redistributionc) Everywhered) LocalQ) You analyze the Oracle database alert log and discover the error message ""Unable to extend tablespace"".What can you do to solve this issue? (Choose three)a) Set at least one data file of the tablespace to ""autoextensible"" (AUTOEXTEND ON).b) Add a new data file.c) Assign a data file to a different tablespace with more free space.d) Enlarge a data file of the tablespace with a fixed size.Q) Which of the following activities are executed by JControl? (Choose three)a) In an AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) system: Start the ABAP Dispatcher.b) Start one or more server processes as JLaunch processes.c) Synchronize binaries.d) Start the Java Message service.e) Connect to the Central Service InstanceQ) You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system. You have changed a dynamically switchable profile parameter in transaction RZ11 (Maintain Profile Parameters). These settings become effective immediately. You want to make sure that the new settings are still valid after the next restart of your system. How do you fulfill this requirement?a) No further steps are necessary in this scenario.b) Maintain the same profile parameter in transaction RSPFPAR (Display Profile Parameter).c) Mark check box ""Activate in profile"" in transaction RZ11.d) Maintain the same profile parameter in transaction RZ10 (Edit Profiles) and activate the changes.Q) An Oracle database instance is running in MOUNT mode. Which tasks can be performed by a database administrator? (Choose two)a) Perform a media recovery.b) Access the Oracle DBA_* views in tablespace SYSTEMc) Recreate a missing control file.d) Change the ARCHIVELOG mode of the database."
Price: 154.99 |
| "SAP C_TAW12_70 Certified Development Associate ABAP&SAP Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which of the following methods require higher Maintenance when new releases of SAP are installed?a) Enhancements to the SAP Sndardb) Append Structuresc) Customizingd) Modifications to the SAP SndardQ) Identify the situation Where Append Structures are not allowed. (More than one answer is correct)a) If the last field has a domain of da type currb) If the last field is already an Append Structurec) If the table conins a field of da type LCHR or LRAWd) If the table is a pooled or cluster tableQ) What is characteristic of a modification to SAP?a) Modified objects lose their connection to the sndardb) Adjustment is automatic during an upgradec) Changes are lost during an upgrade to a new released) New versions may need to be adjusted to include the modificationQ) In the case of a screen exit, how is global da accessed by the subscreen?a) Use the MOVE stement to move the screen da to the TOP include of the subscreenb) Global da is available to subscreens so no special programming is requiredc) The developer uses preplanned function module exitsd) Global da is available to subscreens so no TOP include of the subscreenQ) What object is not supported by the Modification assisnt?a) User exitsb) Text Elementsc) Functionsd) Menus"
Price: 174.99 |
| "CWNA-106 Certified Wireless Network Administrator Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes through a medium of a varying density from that of free space?a) Diffractionb) Reflectionc) Refractiond) DiffusionQ) What can cause an excessively high VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) in a WLAN RF transmission line?a) An impedance mismatch inthe RF cables and connectorsb) Reflected direct current (DC) voltage on the main RF signal linec) Attenuation of the RF signal as it travels along the main signal pathd) Crosstalk (inductance) between adjacent RF conductorsQ) What factors influence the distance that an RF signal can be effectively received? (Choose 3)a) Transmitting station's power sourceb) Receiving station's radio sensitivityc) Free Space Path Lossd) MAC layer encryptione) Transmitting station's output powerQ) As an RF wave propagates through space, the wave front experiences natural expansion that reduces its signal strength in an area. What term describes the rate at which this expansion happens?a) MU-MIMOb) Inverse square lawc) Fresnel zone thinningd) Ohm's lawQ) Return Loss is the decrease of forward energy in a system when some of the power is being reflected back toward the transmitter.What will cause high return loss in an RF transmission system, including the radio, cables, connectors and antenna?a) A Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) of 1:1b) An impedance mismatch between components in the RF systemc) The use of cables longer than onemeter in the RF systemd) High output power at the transmitter and use of a low-gain antenna"
Price: 159.99 |
| "PW0-071 Certified Wireless Technology Specialist Sales Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Select the statement that correctly describes the Wi-Fi Alliance's primary role in the WLAN industry.a) The Wi-Fi Alliance is a WLAN industry analyst firm that reports market trends and developments.b) The Wi-Fi Alliance ensures interoperability of band selection and power settings across regulatory domains.c) The Wi-Fi Alliance creates compliance standards around which vendors can develop products.d) The Wi-Fi Alliance creates recommended practices by which the IEEE can test and certify product interoperability.e) The Wi-Fi Alliance tests and certifies product interoperability based upon standards created by the IEEE.Q) Manufacturers design hardware used for wireless LANs based on a common set of criteria or rules known as standards. The name of the organization responsible for creating 802.11 WLAN standards is what?a) IEEEb) Wi-Fi Alliancec) IETFd) WiMAX Forume) ITUQ) Wi-Fi certified network devices can operate in what frequency band(s)?a) 2.4 GHz onlyb) 900 MHz, 2.4 GHz, and 5 GHzc) 2.4 GHz and 5 GHzd) 5.8 GHz onlyQ) The two most common modes of WLAN discovery are passive scanning, where a client station listens for _________ frames, and active scanning, where a client sends and receives _________ frames.a) Data ; Nullb) SSID ; Managementc) Beacon ; Probed) Probe Response ; BroadcastQ) Given: Your branch office AP is configured with WPA2-Personal, and you have decided that CWTS4me is a good passphrase. You have also configured your laptop with the same passphrase, which is used by the access point to validate the laptop's identity when it attempts to connect to the WLAN.What is this process of identity validation called?a) Affiliationb) Associationc) Authenticationd) Activation"
Price: 174.99 |
