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| "ECCouncil 412-79 Certified Security Analyst (ECSA) Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Identify the type of firewall represented in the diagram below:a) Stateful multilayer inspection firewallb) Application level gatewayc) Packet filterd) Circuit level gatewayQ) Due to illegal inputs, various types of TCP stacks respond in a different manner. Some IDSs do not take into account the TCP protocol's urgency feature, which could allow testers to evade the IDS. Penetration tester needs to try different combinations of TCP flags (e.g. none, SYN/FIN, SYN/RST, SYN/FIN/ACK, SYN/RST/ACK, and All Flags) to test the IDS. Which of the following TCP flag combinations combines the problem of initiation, midstream, and termination flags with the PSH and URG?a) SYN/RST/ACKb) SYN/FIN/ACKc) SYN/FINd) All FlagsQ) Identify the person who will lead the penetration-testing project and be the client point of contact.a) Database Penetration Testerb)Policy Penetration Testerc) Chief Penetration Testerd) Application Penetration TesterQ) A man enters a PIN number at an ATM machine, being unaware that the person next to him was watching. Which of the following social engineering techniques refers to this type of information theft?a) Shoulder surfingb) Phishingc) Insider Accompliced) VishingQ)The Internet is a giant database where people store some of their most private information on the cloud, trusting that the service provider can keep it all safe. Trojans, Viruses, DoS attacks, website defacement, lost computers, accidental publishing, and more have all been sources of major leaks over the last 15 years. What is the biggest source of data leaks in organizations today?a) Weak passwords and lack of identity managementb) Insufficient IT security budgetc) Rogue employees and insider attacksd) Vulnerabilities, risks, and threats facing Web sites"
Price: 169.99  |
| "Microsoft 70-647 Windows Sever Enterprise Administrator Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) You are the administrator for your company's domain. All your servers run Windows Server 2008, and all your clients run Windows Vista. You plan to create a failover cluster with iSCSI disks. You are using third-party software to configure the iSCSI target. What should use to test whether your system, storage, and network configuration is suitable for a cluster?a) Install the Cluster Validation Tool.b) Run nlb.exe.c) Run wlbs.exed) Run verclsid.exe.Q) You are a server administrator for your organization. You have deployed Windows Server 2008 on the domain controllers. The client computers in your organization run Windows XP Service Pack 3 (SP3) or Windows Vista SP1. You have deployed Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) and Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) on a Windows Server 2008 domain controller. You are setting up AD DS auditing. You need to enable and view all four directory service policy subcategories on a Windows Server 2008 domain controller. What should you do?a) Enable the global Audit directory service access audit policy, and run GPedit.msc to view the audit policy subcategories.b) Enable the Audit object access audit policy, and run GPedit.msc to view the audit policy subcategories.c) Enable the Directory Service Changes audit policy subcategory, and run Auditpol.exe to view the audit policy subcategories.d) Enable the Directory Service Access audit policy subcategory, and run Auditpol.exe to view the audit policy subcategories.Q) You are the server administrator for your organization. Your organization has multiple Active Directory domains that include Windows Server 2008 domain controllers. You have deployed Windows Vista on all client computers. Your organization has multiple Windows Server 2008 servers configured with the File Services role. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that multiple shared folders located on different file servers appear as a single shared folder to users in the organization. What should you do?a) Enable offline caching.b) Implement Distributed File System (DFS) replication.c) Implement a DFS namespace.d) Implement volume shadowingQ) Your company has a single Active Directory domain with branch offices in three cities. Each city is configured as an Active Directory site. All servers run Windows Server 2008, and all client computers run Windows Vista. Each office has a file server with shared folders. You want users in each office to be able to access and update the data in each file server's shared folder on a local server in each office. You also want to prevent a server that was offline for a long time from overwriting fresh data when it comes back online with stale data. Your solution should minimize hardware expenses. What should you configure?a) Implement Distributed File System (DFS) Namespaces and DFS Replication.b) Implement Cluster Continuous Replication (CCR).c) Implement a Network Load Balancing cluster.d) Implement a single copy cluster (SCC).Q) You are the administrator for a single Active Directory domain. You have to upgrade all client computers to Windows Vista. All servers in the network run either Windows Server 2003 or Windows Server 2008. You want to create a storage design infrastructure that can use block-based storage over an existing IP network infrastructure. What should you implement?a) Implement iSCSI.b) Implement Fiber Channel.c) Implement Virtual Disk Service.d)Implement Serial ATA."
Price: 154.99  |
| "VMware VCPC510 Certified Professional vCloud Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) What differentiates a private cloud from a vSphere Infrastructure?a) A private cloud requires pooled resources including storage and networking.b) vSphere Infrastructure assumes a secure location for the workloads.c) vSphere Infrastructure allows consumption of resources over open standardsd) A private cloud assumes the consumer will maintain their portion of the infrastructureQ) Which component is the metering tool for vCloud administration?a) VMware vCenter Chargebackb) VMware vCloud Service Managerc) VMware vCloud Request Managerd) VMware vCloud DirectorQ) What is the default VFAT scratch partition size for ESXi 5.x when installed on a USB drive?a) 600MBb) 544MBc) 4GBd) noneQ) An administrator is unable to find network traffic details while running vCloud hierarchy reports. The network administrator confirms that there was network traffic during the report time span. Which collector is configured incorrectly?a) vCenter Data Collectorb) vCenter Chargeback Data Collectorc) vCloud Data Collectord) vShield Manager Data CollectorQ) An administrator has scheduled a report to run at 8 PM nightly and has configured a number of recipients to receive the report. After the report runs, the administrator discovers that a link to the report was sent to the recipients, not the report itself. Why did this occur?a) vCenter Chargeback cannot support attachments via email.b) The report size was larger than the size limit configured for the SMTP server.c) vCenter Chargeback was configured to send links instead of attachments.d) The SMTP server was configured not to accept attachments."
Price: 179.99  |
| "Citrix 1Y0-351 NetScaler 10.5 Essentials and Networking Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which NetScaler IP address must a NetScaler Engineer set for management and general system access purposes?a) NSIPb) SNIPc) VIPd) USNIPQ) Which public IP address must a NetScaler Engineer set on a NetScaler appliance to allow for client connections?a) NSIPb) SNIPc) VIPd) USNIPQ) Which two virtual servers could a NetScaler Engineer configure to redirect GET requests to application servers?a) Load balancingb) Authenticationc) Wildcardd) Content switchingQ) Which three command-line interface commands should a NetScaler Engineer execute to configure an authentication virtual server?a) add authentication vserver <name> ssl <ipaddress>b) bind ssl certkey c) set authentication vserver <name> -authenticationDomaind) show authentication vserver <name>e) add ssl certkeyQ) Which NetScaler feature would a NetScaler Engineer configure to allow users from a certain IP range to have access to a special Web portal?a) Load Balancingb) Content Filteringc) Global Server Load Balancingd) Content Switching"
Price: 169.99  |
| "CompTIA CAS-002 Advanced Security Certified Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) An administrator wants to enable policy based flexible mandatory access controls on an open source OS to prevent abnormal application modifications or executions. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this?a) Access control listsb) SELinuxc) IPtables firewalld) HIPSQ) Company ABC SAN is nearing capacity, and will cause costly downtimes if servers run out disk space. Which of the following is a more cost effective alternative to buying a new SAN?a) Enable multipath to increase availabilityb) Enable deduplication on the storage poolsc) Implement snapshots to reduce virtual disk sized) Implement replication to offsite datacenterQ) A systems administrator establishes a CIFS share on a UNIX device to share data to Windows systems. The security authentication on the Windows domain is set to the highest level. Windows users are stating that they cannot authenticate to the UNIX share. Which of the following settings on the UNIX server would correct this problem?a) Refuse LM and only accept NTLMv2b) Accept only LMc) Refuse NTLMv2 and accept LMd) Accept only NTLMQ) Accept only NTLMa) vTPMb) HSMc) TPMd) INEQ) A user has a laptop configured with multiple operating system installations. The operating systems are all installed on a single SSD, but each has its own partition and logical volume. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure confidentiality of individual operating system data?a) Encryption of each individual partitionb) Encryption of the SSD at the file levelc) FDE of each logical volume on the SSDd) FDE of the entire SSD as a single disk"
Price: 179.99  |
| "AWS Devops Engineer Proffesional Certified Practice Test" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) You have an application which consists of EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. Between a particular time frame every day, there is an increase In traffic to your website. Hence users are complaining of a poor response time on the application. You have configured your Auto Scaling group to deploy one new EC2 instance when Cpu utilization is greater than 60% for 2 consecutive periods of 5 minutes. What is the least cost-effective way to resolve this problem?a) Decrease the consecutive number of collection periodsb) Increase the minimum number of instances in the Auto Scaling groupc) Decrease the collection period to ten minutesd) Decrease the threshold cu utilization percentage at which to deploy a new InstanceQ) You have decided that you need to change the instance type of your production instances which are running as part of an Auto Scaling group. The entire architecture is deployed using CloudFormation Template. You currently have 4 instances in Production. You cannot have any interruption in service and need to ensure 2 instances are always running during the update? Which of the options below listed can be used for this?a) Auto Scaling Rolling Updateb) Auto Scaling scheduled Actionc) Auto Scaling Replacing updated) Auto Scaling integration UpdateQ) You currently have the following setup in AWS 1)An Elastic Load Balancer 2) Auto scaling Group which launches EC Instances 3) AMIs with your code pre-installed You want to deploy the updates to your app to only a certain number of users. You want to have a cost-effective solution. You should also be able to revert back quickly. Which of the below solutions is the most feasible one?a) Create a second ELB. Auto Scaling. Create the AMI with the new app.Use a new launch configuration.Use Route 53 Weighted Round Robin records to adjust the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELBs.b) Create new AMIs with the new app. Then use the new EC2 instances in half proportion to the older instances.c) Redeploy with AWS Elastic Beanstalk and Elastic Beanstalk versions. Use Route 53 Weighted Round Robin records to adjust the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELB5d) Create a full second stack of instances, cut the DNS over to the new stack of instances, and change the ONS back if a rollback is needed.Q) Your application is currently running on Amazon EC2 instances behind a load balancer. Your management has decided to use a Blue/Green deployment strategy. How should you Implement this for each deployment? Please select:a) Set up Amazon Route 53 health checks to fail over from any Amazon EC2 instance that is currently being deployed to.b) Using AWS Cloud Formation, create a test stack for validating the code, and then deploy the code to each production Amazon EC2 instance.c) Create a new load balancer with new Amazon EC2 instances, carry out the deployment, and then switch DNS over to the new load balancer using Amazon Route 53 after testing.d) Launch more Amazon EC2 instances to ensure high availability. de-register each Amazon EC2 instance from the load balancer, upgrade it and test it. and then register it again with the load balancer.Q) You have an application running a specific process that is critical to the application's functionality, and have added the health check process to your Auto Scaling group. The instances are showing healthy but the application Itself is not working as it should. What could be the issue with the health check, since It is still showing the instances as healthy.a) You do not have the time range in the health check property configuredb) It is not possible for a health check to monitor a process that involves the applicationc) The health check is not configured properlyd) The health check is not checking the application process"
Price: 169.99  |
| "AWS SAP-C00 Solution Architect Professional Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) By default, Amazon Cognito maintains the last-written version of the data. You can override this behavior and resolve data conflicts programmatically. In addition, push synchronization allows you to use Amazon Cognito to send a silent notification to all devices associated with an identity to notify them that new data is available.a) Getb) Postc) Puld) PushQ) You want to use AWS Code Deploy to deploy an application to Amazon EC2 instances running with in an Amazon Virtual Private Cloud(VPC). What criterion must be met for this to be possible?a) The AWS Code Deploy agent installed on the Amazon EC2 instances must be able to access only the public AWS Code Deploy endpoint.b) The AWS Code Deploy agent installed on the Amazon EC2 instances must be able to access only the public Amazon S3 service endpoint.c) The AWS Code Deploy agent installed on the Amazon EC2 instances must be able to access the public AWS Code Deploy and Amazon S3 service endpoints.d) It is not currently possible to use AWS Code Deploy to deploy an application to Amazon EC2 instances running with in running an Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC.)Q) An IAM user is trying to perform an action on an object belonging to some other root accountis bucket.Which of the below mentioned options will AWS S3 not verify?a) The object owner has provided access to the IAM user.b) Permission provided by the parent of the IAM user on the bucket.c) Permission provided by the bucket owner to the IAM user.d) Permission provided by the parent of the IAM user.Q) An organization is planning to extend their data center by connecting their DC with the AWS VPC using the VPN gateway. The organization is setting up a dynamically routed VPN Connection. Which of the below mentioned answers is not required to setup this configuration?a) The type of customer gateway, such as Cisco ASA, Juniper J-Series, Juniper SSG, Yamaha.b) Elastic IP ranges that the organization wants to advertise over the VPN connection to the VPC.c) Internet-routable IP address (static) of the customer gateways external interface.d) Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) Autonomous System Number (ASN) of the customer gateway.Q) In the context of AWS IAM, identify a true statement about user passwords (login profiles).a) The must contain Unicode characters.b) They can contain any Basic Latin (ASCII) characters.c) They must begin and end with a forward slash(/).d) They can not contain Basic Latin (ASCII) characters"
Price: 144.99  |
| "Oracle 1Z0-207 Comm. Billing & Revenue Mgmt Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) A customer can directly purchase which of the following pricing objects?a) Dealb) Planc) Productd) A and Be) A, B, and CQ) Of the following objects listed, which is NOT created when using PCM_OP_CUST_COMMIT_CUSTOMER to create an account?a) /productb) /servicec) /accountd) /payinfoe) /itemQ) Which of the following steps is required when creating a new FM?a) Configure the FM as part of the CMb) Create an opcode-to-function mapping filec) Define a new opcode with its number in a header filed) A and Be) A, B, and CQ) An Infranet.properties file can be found in which of the following default directories?a) /opt/portal/7.0/apps/pin_billdb) /opt/portal/7.0/sys/eai_jsc) /opt/portal/7.0/sys/dm_oracled) /opt/portal/7.0/sys/cme) None of the aboveQ) Which of the following opcodes is NOT implemented in the Business Process Tier?a) PCM_OP_CUST_COMMIT_CUSTOMERb) PCM_OP_ACT_ACTIVITYc) PCM_OP_SEARCHd) PCM_OP_RATE_ACTIVITYe) PCM_OP_CUST_MODIFY_CUSTOMER"
Price: 174.99  |
| "Sun 310-090 Business Component Developer J2EE Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which method can be called by the container to transition an entity bean instance from the ready state to the pooled state?a) ejbRemoveb) ejbCreatec) ejbActivated) unsetEntityContextQ) Which statement is true about the implementation of ejbSelect methods?a) The container calls the appropriate ejbFind methods in the bean class.b) The deployment descriptor's EJB QL guides the container's implementation.c) The EJBObject contains wrapper methods which call the ejbSelect methods.d) The Bean Provider supplies the implementation of the ejbSelect methods.Q) Which role is responsible for implementing the home business methods for a CMP 2.0 entity bean?a) Deployerb) Bean Providerc) Container Providerd) Application AssemblerQ) Which method from javax.ejb.EJBContext returns an object that allows a Bean Provider to demarcate transactions?a) begin()b) getAutoCommit()c) getTransaction()d) getUserTransaction()Q) Which is a responsibility of the EJB 2.0 container, with respect to session beans?a) invoking the setSessionContext methodb) invoking the home interface create methodc) implementing a class that implements javax.ejb.SessionBeand) implementing an afterBegin method, if declared in the bean's remote interface"
Price: 169.99  |
| "Sales force ADM-201 Administration Essentials Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Inline editing updates the field whenmultiple-choicea) The field is saved/updatedb) When the record is saved/updatedc) When the return key is pressedd) None of the aboveQ) If a company opts to use Custom Fiscal Years, they cannot use the standard forecasting option.a) TRUEb) FALSEQ) Which of the following are not standard objects?a) Opportunitiesb) Solutionsc) Job Applicantsd) Accountse) CampaignsQ) Which of the following are part of the Service Cloud offering?a) Opportunitiesb) Knowledgec) Entitlementsd) Campaignse) QuotesQ) Locale settings control how users view date formats, time formats and number formats.a) TRUEb) FALSE"
Price: 174.99  |
| "CISM Certified Information Security Manager Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which of the following should be the FIRST step in developing an information security plan?multiple-choicea) Perform a technical vulnerabilities assessmentb) Analyze the current business strategyc) Perform a business impact analysisd) Assess the current levels of security awarenessQ) Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through presentations that:a) use illustrative examples of successful attacks.b) explain the technical risks to the organization.c) evaluate the organization against best security practices.d) tie security risks to key business objectives.Q) The MOST appropriate role for senior management in supporting information security is the:a) aevaluation of vendors offering security products.b) assessment of risks to the organization.c) approval of policy statements and funding.d) monitoring adherence to regulatory requirements.Q) Which of the following would BEST ensure the success of information security governance within an organization?a) Steering committees approve security projectsb) Security policy training provided to all managersc) Security training available to all employees on the intranetd) Steering committees enforce compliance with laws and regulationsQ) Information security governance is PRIMARILY driven by:a) technology constraints.b) regulatory requirements.c) litigation potentiald) business strategy."
Price: 179.99  |
| "CAP Certified Authorization Professional Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization's configuration management process?a) Senior Agency Information Security Officerb) Authorizing Officialc) Common Control Providerd) Chief Information OfficerQ) The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.a) Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organizationb) Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officialsc) Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organizationd) Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working within a budget to implement the planQ) The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) play the role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about ISSO and ISSE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.a) An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes.b) An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).c) An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).d) An ISSO takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.e) An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.Q) Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?a) Information system owner b) Authorizing Official c) Chief Risk Officer (CRO) d) Chief Information Officer (CIO) Q) Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation? a) FITSAF b) FIPS 102 c) OCTAVE d) DITSCAP"
Price: 159.99  |
| "Microsoft 70-646 Windows Server Administrator Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) You are the administrator for your company's domain. All your servers run Windows Server 2008, and all your clients run Windows Vista. You plan to create a failover cluster with iSCSI disks. You are using third-party software to configure the iSCSI target. What should use to test whether your system, storage, and network configuration is suitable for a cluster?a) Install the Cluster Validation Tool.b) Run nlb.exe.c) Run wlbs.exed) Run verclsid.exe.Q) You are a server administrator for your organization. You have deployed Windows Server 2008 on the domain controllers. The client computers in your organization run Windows XP Service Pack 3 (SP3) or Windows Vista SP1. You have deployed Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) and Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) on a Windows Server 2008 domain controller. You are setting up AD DS auditing. You need to enable and view all four directory service policy subcategories on a Windows Server 2008 domain controller. What should you do?a) Enable the global Audit directory service access audit policy, and run GPedit.msc to view the audit policy subcategories.b) Enable the Audit object access audit policy, and run GPedit.msc to view the audit policy subcategories.c) Enable the Directory Service Changes audit policy subcategory, and run Auditpol.exe to view the audit policy subcategories.d) Enable the Directory Service Access audit policy subcategory, and run Auditpol.exe to view the audit policy subcategories.Q) You are the server administrator for your organization. Your organization has multiple Active Directory domains that include Windows Server 2008 domain controllers. You have deployed Windows Vista on all client computers. Your organization has multiple Windows Server 2008 servers configured with the File Services role. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that multiple shared folders located on different file servers appear as a single shared folder to users in the organization. What should you do?a) Enable offline caching.b) Implement Distributed File System (DFS) replication.c) Implement a DFS namespace.d) Implement volume shadowingQ) Your company has a single Active Directory domain with branch offices in three cities. Each city is configured as an Active Directory site. All servers run Windows Server 2008, and all client computers run Windows Vista. Each office has a file server with shared folders. You want users in each office to be able to access and update the data in each file server's shared folder on a local server in each office. You also want to prevent a server that was offline for a long time from overwriting fresh data when it comes back online with stale data. Your solution should minimize hardware expenses. What should you configure?a) Implement Distributed File System (DFS) Namespaces and DFS Replication.b) Implement Cluster Continuous Replication (CCR).c) Implement a Network Load Balancing cluster.d) Implement a single copy cluster (SCC).Q) You are the administrator for a single Active Directory domain. You have to upgrade all client computers to Windows Vista. All servers in the network run either Windows Server 2003 or Windows Server 2008. You want to create a storage design infrastructure that can use block-based storage over an existing IP network infrastructure. What should you implement?a) Implement iSCSI.b) Implement Fiber Channel.c) Implement Virtual Disk Service.d) Implement Serial ATA."
Price: 149.99  |
| "PMI CAPM Certify Associate Project Management Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) The stakeholder register is an output of:a) Identify Stakeholders.b) Plan Stakeholder Management.c) Control Stakeholder Engagement.d) Manage Stakeholder Engagement.Q) An output of the Develop Project Team process is:a) change requestsb) team performance assessmentsc) project staff assignmentsd) project documents updatesQ) Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?a) Portfoliob) Projectc) Programd) OperationsQ) Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?a) Programb) Functionalc) Projectd) PortfolioQ) The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:a) Methodologyb) Risk categoryc) Risk attituded) Assumption analysis"
Price: 179.99  |
| "PMI-100 Certified Associate Project Management Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) The stakeholder register is an output of:a) Identify Stakeholders.b) Plan Stakeholder Management.c) Control Stakeholder Engagement.d) Manage Stakeholder Engagement.Q) An output of the Develop Project Team process is:a) change requestsb) team performance assessmentsc) project staff assignmentsd) project documents updatesQ) Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?a) Portfoliob) Projectc) Programd) OperationsQ) Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?a) Programb) Functionalc) Projectd) PortfolioQ) The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:a) Methodologyb) Risk categoryc) Risk attituded) Assumption analysis"
Price: 169.99  |
| "PMI CA0-001 Associate Project Management Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) On what is project baseline development established?a) Approved product requirementsb) Estimated project cost and schedulec) Actual project cost and scheduled) Revised project cost and scheduleQ) Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?a) Work breakdown structureb) Organizational breakdown structurec) Resource breakdown structured) Bill of materialsQ) What is the definition of project plan execution?a) Integrating all planned activities.b) Performing the activities included in the planc) Developing and maintaining the plan.d) Execution of deliverables.Q) What is a tool to improve team performance?a) Staffing planb) External feedbackc) Performance reportsd) Co-LocationQ) Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?a) Productb) Cost benefitc) Stakeholderd) Research"
Price: 179.99  |
| "Oracle 1Z0-209 Comm. Billing & Revenue Server Admin Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which of the following is NOT an example of a bill item?a) Usage itemb) Configurable itemc) Settlement itemd) Cycle arrear iteme) Cycle forward itemQ) A customer purchases a calling plan that charges all calls at a rate of $0.50/minute. After a 100-minute call, the customer is charged with the amount of $50.00. This particular calling plan has two discounts. Discount object 1, which is set at a priority of 4, is configured to give a 15% discount. Discount object 2, which is set at a priority of 5, is configured to give a 25% discount. Both discount objects are defined as parallel. Based on the scenario above, the total charge paid by this customer for the 100-minute call after the discounts are applied isa) $32.50b) $37.50c) $20.00d) $42.50e) $30.00Q) Which of the following is an example of Supplementary Service for GSM Telephony?a) Voicemailb) Caller IDc) Friends and Familyd) A and Be) A, B, and CQ) The Basic Digital Cable with Hi-Speed Internet Plan charges $40.00/month for cable service and $30.00/month for Internet service. Both of these charges are Monthly Cycle forward charges; therefore, they are charged at the beginning of each month. The installation fee for cable service is $20.00. The installation fee for Internet service is free. If this plan is purchased during the promotional months of Dec Feb, the first month of Internet service is free. Assuming that a customer purchases the above plan on December 15th with the payment set as invoice and there is no proration on the monthly fees, what is the expected balance for the customers first bill?a) $90.00b) $60.00c) $130.00d) $160.00e) $50.00Q) Which of the following statements about the Rollover feature in Portal is FALSE?a) You can specify the maximum number of rollover cyclesb) You can specify the maximum rollover amount per cyclec) You can specify the maximum total amount that can be rolled overd) Product proration rules cannot be applied to a rollover amounte) Effective dates can be set for rollovers"
Price: 169.99  |
| "Oracle 1Z0-517 EBS R12 Payables Essentials Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) What is a benefit of the secondary tracking segment?a) Additional security ensures that correct accounts are selected while entering transactions.b) The Management segment is enabled automatically when the secondary segment is defined.c) More details are provided to retained earnings, cumulative translation adjustments, and revaluation gains/losses accounts.d) None of the aboveQ) Isa Global Inc. is based in the United States with divisions in Europe and Asia. All journal imports, recurring journals, mass allocations, and manual journal entries have been posted for their European subsidiary. What is the next logical step in the period-close process?a) opening the next periodb) closing the current periodc) revaluing foreign currency balancesd) translating to the functional currencye) consolidating to the parent set of booksQ) Select two actions that ledger sets permit. (Choose two.)a) performing variance inquiriesb) being used for mass budgetsc) sending budget balance inquiriesd) viewing account balances for multiple ledgers in one viewe) grouping multiple ledgers that share the same chart of accounts and calendarQ) Select three activities that must be performed to complete the setup of the key accounting flexfield. (Choose three.)A) Create aliases.b) Define a value set.c) Define security rules.d) Define an account structure.e) Define valid segment values.f) Create account combinations.Q) Which two statements are true about the reporting currency in Oracle General Ledger? (Choose two.)a) It is an integrated extension of a ledger.b) It replaces multiple reporting currencies.c) Reporting currencies are the same as secondary ledgers.d) Reporting currencies cannot have the same chart of accounts, accounting method, and ledger processing options."
Price: 164.99  |
| "Oracle 1Z0-516 EBS R12 General Ledger Essentials Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Jane, the GL accountant, asks you whether she could delete the budget after it has been defined. She also wants to know whether she could delete the budget organization after it has been defined. What would be your response?a) You can delete the budget and the budget organization after they have been defined.b) You cannot delete the budget or the budget organization after either has been defined.c) You cannot delete a budget after it has been defined. However, you can delete a budget organization.d) You cannot delete a budget organization after it has been defined. However, you can delete a budget.Q) Jack, the CFO of ABC Company, wants to prepare the annual capital expenditure budget for the current year where the company plans to grow in the last quarter of the year. The capital expenditure budget is subdivided in multiple items, and the corporate calendar used at ABC Company has thirteen periods. Identify the three budget rules that Jack must use to minimize the effort. (Choose three.)a) Use the divide evenly rule with the 4/4/4 spread.b) Use the divide evenly rule with the 4/5/4 spread.c) Use the divide evenly rule with the 5/4/4 spread.d) Use the divide evenly rule with the 4/4/5 spread.A) Sam, the CFO of XYZ Company, wants to prepare the annual capital expenditure budget for the current year with reference to the capital expenditure budget of the previous year. The capital expenditure budget is subdivided into multiple items, and the corporate calendar used at XYZ Company has thirteen periods. Which budget rule must Sam use to minimize the effort.a) prior year budget monetary and prior year budget statisticalb) prior year actual monetary and current year budget statisticalc) prior year budget monetary and current year budget statisticald) current year actual monetary and current year actual statisticae) current year budget monetary and current year budget statisticalQ) Suppliers play an important part in the Procure-to-Pay process. Select three activities that you must perform using a supplier. (Choose three.)a) You receive goods or services from suppliersb) You need supplier information for entering purchase orders.c) You must pay the supplier for the goods or services purchased.d) You need a supplier as the criterion to search for a payment in the system.e) You need a supplier as the criterion to search for purchase orders in the system.Q) Purchasing has numerous activities that are performed as a key part of the Procure-to-Pay process. Select three activities that are performed in the Purchasing module that will integrate into Payables. (Choose three.)a) canceling invoicesb) performing receivingc) scheduling paymentsd) creating purchase orderse) creating purchase order detailed accounting information"
Price: 179.99  |
| "CompTIA JK0-801 A+ Systems Certification Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which of the following would be the BEST response a technician should give a customer who inquires about how long it will take to repair their PC?a) The technician should ask the customer when they would like the computer to be completed.b) Inform the customer that others will be helped first, but they will complete the repair as soon as possible.c) Based on the technician's assessment, give the customer an estimated time of completion.d) Ask the customer to check in with the technician daily, until all work is completed.Q) Which of the following display types uses a charged gas method of illumination?a) OLEDb) CRTc) LED LCDd) PlasmaQ) Which of the following laptop hardware components requires a re-soldering process in order to replace properly?a) Mini PCIe wireless cardb) Heat sinkc) DC jackd) Li-Ion batteryQ) A user, Ann, is experiencing headaches and motion sickness symptoms when using her new computer monitor. Which of the following can a technician adjust to help Ann?a) Privacy filterb) Refresh ratec) Use a digital signald) BrightnessQ) Which of the following protocols is used by a server to assign IP addresses?a) DNSb) SMTPc) LDAPd) DHCP"
Price: 164.99  |
| "CompTIA SY0-201 Security+ Certification Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which of the following cryptography types provides the same level of security but uses smaller key sizes and less computational resources than logarithms which are calculated against a finite field? a) Elliptical curveb) Diffie-Hellmanc) Quantumd) El GamalQ) Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of fuzzing?a) To decrypt network sessionsb) To gain unauthorized access to a facilityc) To hide system or session activityd) To discover buffer overflow vulnerabilitiesQ) A security administrator is reviewing remote access and website logs. The administrator notices that users have been logging in at odd hours from multiple continents on the same day. The security administrator suspects the company is the victim of which of the following types of attack?a) TCP/IP hijackingb) Spoofingc) Replayd) Domain name kitingQ) Which of the following is the default rule found in a corporate firewalls access control list? a) Anti-spoofingb) Permit allc) Multicast listd) Deny allQ) Which of the following is the BEST choice of cryptographic algorithms or systems for providing whole disk encryption? a) One time padb) PGPc) MD5d) TKIP"
Price: 169.99  |
| "CompTIA PD1-001 PDI+ Beta Certification Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) The fuser unit is powered by which of the following components?a) AC PWBb) SCSIc) USBd) HVPSQ) The charge roller or charge corona is supplied by which of the following components?a) LEDb) LVPSc) HVPSd) LEDQ) The developer bias is supplied by which of the following components?a) LEDb) LEDc) HVPSd) LVPSQ) The transfer belt or transfer roller is supplied by which of the fol owing?a) USBb) HVPSc) SCSId) LVPSQ) The component that allows dual sided printing to occur is the:a) flatbed scanner.b) duplex unit.c) paper feed unit.d) photoconductor."
Price: 174.99  |
| "CompTIA JK0-018 Security + E2C Certification Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) A hacker has discovered a simple way to disrupt business for the day in a small company which relies on staff working remotely. In a matter of minutes the hacker was able to deny remotely working staff access to company systems with a script. Which of the following security controls is the hacker exploiting?a) DoSb) Account lockoutc) Password recoveryd) Password complexityQ) A security specialist has been asked to evaluate a corporate network by performing a vulnerability assessment. Which of the following will MOST likely be performed?a) Identify vulnerabilities, check applicability of vulnerabilities by passively testing security controls.b) Verify vulnerabilities exist, bypass security controls and exploit the vulnerabilities.c) Exploit security controls to determine vulnerabilities and mis-configurations.d) Bypass security controls and identify applicability of vulnerabilities by passively testing security controls.Q) A security technician is attempting to access a wireless network protected with WEP. The technician does not know any information about the network. Which of the following should the technician do to gather information about the configuration of the wireless network?a) Spoof the MAC address of an observed wireless network clientb) Ping the access point to discover the SSID of the networkc) Perform a dictionary attack on the access point to enumerate the WEP keyd) Capture client to access point disassociation packets to replay on the local PC's loopbackQ) After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).a) To allow load balancing for cloud supportb) To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of businessc) To eliminate a single point of failured) To allow for a hot site in case of disastere) To improve intranet communication speedsQ) A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces?a) The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128b) The switch has several VLANs configured on it.c) The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic.d) The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service."
Price: 169.99  |
| "CompTIA JK0-015 E2C Security + Certification Practice Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which of the following is a preventative physical security control?a) CCTVb) Armed guardc) Proper lightingd) Access listQ) Which of the following security concerns is MOST prominent when utilizing cloud computing service providers?a) Video surveillanceb) Mobile device accessc) Removable storage mediad) Blended systems and dataQ) Which of the following is an example of forcing users to change their password every 90 days?a) Password recovery requirementsb) Password length requirementsc) Password expiration requirementsd) Password complexity requirementsQ) Which of the following is an example of requiring users to have a password of 16 characters or more?a) Password recovery requirementsb) Password complexity requirementsc) Password expiration requirementsd) Password length requirementsQ) Which of the following is an example of allowing a user to perform a self-service password reset?a) Password lengthb) Password recoveryc) Password complexityd) Password expiration"
Price: 154.99  |
| "IBM C2040-985 Developing IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5 Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Linda would like to have a navigator pane for her XPages application. What would be the best way to implement this pane?a) She downloads and installs a JavaScript library for a menu.b) Unfortunately, there is no simple way to do it, so she has to build it on every XPage.c) She puts the links for her navigation together by building a custom control and can use that for every page that she needs.d) She has to build the navigator by using a Notes view with documents defining each link in her navigator. She then integrates that view in each XPage that her application needs.Q) Jane is updating an Supplier application for XPages. Currently the Supplier form has a table to allow up to 10 contacts to be assigned. Her users have complained that they often need to enter more. How can she best change the design to help them?a) Add five extra rows to the Supplier form and the relevant XPage.b) Use a repeat control on the Supplier XPage that allows them to add as many as they want.c) Create a Contact form to hold the contact information. Allow users to create Contacts as child documents on the Supplier XPage and use a repeat control to display the related Contacts.d) Create a Contact form to hold contact information.However users must navigate to a different XPage to create and edit Contacts.Q) George has been asked to create a new Lotus Notes XPages application that is used in the Lotus Notes client and on the web. George knows Lotus Notes development, but not XPages yet. How can he use LotusScript in the new application?a) He can use LotusScript agents in his application and he does not need to learn anything elseb) He can call LotusScript agents from his XPages, but it would be better if he converted them into JavaScript in his XPages.c) He cannot use LotusScript at all any more and needs to rewrite all of his existing agents and event code to use JavaScript and Java.d) He can just copy and paste the LotuScript into the XPage event model and it will work.Q) Emily is preparing to build an application for using browsers. She is considering using XPages. Which of the following statements about XPages is not valid?a) XPages can be deployed to a Lotus Domino 8 server.b) XPages can be used on a variety of browsers with minimal changes.c) XPages can be made multilingual by using built-in Lotus Domino Designer functionalityd) XPages can create and manipulate Lotus Domino data on other servers, provided they are within the same trusted domain.Q) Donna is interested in using the Single copy XPage design to improve the performance of her application. Which of the following design elements are not supported in this feature?a) XPagesb) Viewsc) Themesd) Custom controls"
Price: 159.99  |
| "IBM C2040-925 Installing and Configuring IBM Lotus Note Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) The default port for SSL over SMTP is which one of the following?a) 389b) 465c) 636d) 995Q) Which protocol must be enabled on the Domino server to support RSS feeds for mail files?a) RSSb) HTTPc) IMAPd) LDAPQ) Which task reads the mail.box for new or changed messages that require processing?a) SMTPb) Amgrc) Asminpd) RouterQ) Without manually restarting the SMTP server task, how often will it automatically check for changes to Configuration Settings documents?a) Neverb) Two minutesc) Hourlyd) Daily at midnightQ) Pedro, a Domino administrator, has enabled the Inbox maintenance feature from a mail policy document. How is the Inbox maintenance feature trigged and where does it run?a) The Inbox maintenance agent is enabled by default to run at 2 AM on all mail servers in the domain.b) The Administration Process periodically runs the Inbox Maintenance agent on each user's home server.c) Every time a user opens their mail file the Inbox maintenance agent runs locally on the user's workstation.d) The Inbox maintenance agent runs on a user's home server and is manually triggered by selecting Tools - Inbox maintenance from within their mail file."
Price: 144.99  |
| "IBM C2010-652 Smart Cloud Control V7.5 Fundamentals Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) By default, what are three of the required fields in a bulletin board message? (Choose three.)a) Subjectb) Messagec) Message IDd) Organizatione) Person Groupf) Expiration DateQ) What are two virtual machine images that must be deployed to implement the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk VM Image solution? (Choose two.)a) IBM DB2 virtual machineb) IBM Tivoli Directory Server virtual machinec) Administrative Workstation virtual machined) IBM Tivoli Integration Composer virtual machinee) IBM WebSphere Application Server virtual machineQ) Updating asset information in a controlled manner is part of the IT Asset Management process. Which two related processes provide information on required updates to assets? (Choose two.)a) Incident Managementb) Release Managementc) Security Managementd) Service Level Managemente) Service Request ManagementQ) Most loggers are inactive by default and set to which mode level?a) WARNb) DEBUGc) ERRORd) DEFAULTQ) Which statement best describes the Service Request Management functionality in IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5?a) A tool that provides end-to-end IT and Enterprise asset lifecycle management on a single integrated platform.b) A tool that enables users to request, deploy, monitor and manage cloud computing services. It also provides traceable approvals and processes.c) A tool that helps customers manage, audit, and coordinate change and configuration management processes using user interlaces and workflows that facilitate cross-silo cooperation.d) A tool that provides a comprehensive and modular approach to integrated service desk and service catalog management enabling IT personnel to improve the efficiency of service delivery and to drive down operating costs."
Price: 144.99  |
| "VMware 2V0-621D Certified Professional Data Center Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) An administrator wants to provide users restricted access. The users should only be able to perform the following tasks: Create and consolidate virtual machine snapshots Add/Remove virtual disks Snapshot Management Which default role in vCenter Server would meet the administrator's requirements for the users?a) Virtual machine userb) Virtual machine power userc) Virtual Datacenter administratord) VMware Consolidated Backup userQ) Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)a) Administratorb) Network Administratorc) Datastore Consumerd) Read-OnlyQ) An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any privileges to it. Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.)a) System.Viewb) System.Anonymousc) System.Userd) System.ReadOnlyQ) An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines. Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?a) Datastore.Allocate Spaceb) Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshotc) Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshotd) Datastore.Browse DatastoreQ) An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects. What is true about the permissions on the object?a) The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded.b) The permissions are combined from both parent objectsc) No permissions are applied from the parent objectsd) The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects."
Price: 174.99  |
| "Vmware 2V0-641 Certify Professional Network Virtualiz Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which statement describes proper packet processing of layer 3 traffic in an NSX for vSphere topology?a) All packets are processed by the distributed router. No packets are processed by the Logical Router Control VM.b) Only packets requiring routing to another VM on the same host are processed by the distributed router. Other packets are processed by the Logical Router Control VM.c) Only packets requiring routing to another VM on a different host are processed by the distributed router. Other packets are processed by the Logical Router Control VM.d) All packets requiring routing are processed by performing a lookup in the Logical Router Control VM and then forwarded.Q) What are two advantages for using NSX for vSphere's Logical Switching? (Choose two.)a) Expands the number of available VLANs.b) Allows for Layer 2 switching over Layer 3 infrastructure.c) Distributes Layer 3 data across multiple hypervisorsd) Provides for 10,000 logical segments.Q) Using VMware's best practices, choose two statements that define the best solution for scaling layer 2 services for the virtual network. (Choose two.)a) Employ a layer 2 switched network.b) Employ a layer 3 switched networkc) Use GRE for an overlay network.d) Use VXLAN for an overlay networkQ) Which component provides for installation of NSX hypervisor kernel components and user world agents?a) NSX Controllerb) NSX Edge Virtual Appliancec) NSX Managerd) vCloud Automation CenteQ) Which NSX service or feature provides optimized management of virtual machine broadcast (ARP) traffic?a) NSX Controllerb) NSX Managerc) Edge Services Gatewayd) VTEP"
Price: 179.99  |
| "VMware VCPC550 Certified Professional vCloud Automation Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) Which workflow should the administrator follow to create a High Availability (HA) cluster?a) Select a datacenter, create a cluster in the datacenter, add resources to the cluster, enable HA, and configure HA-specific settingsb) Select a resource pool, create an HA Cluster in the resource pool, add resources to the cluster, configure HA-specific settings, and enable HAc) Select a datacenter, create an HA Cluster, add resources to the cluster, configure HA-specific settings, and enable HAd) Select a resource pool, create a cluster in the pool, add resources to the cluster, enable HA, and configure HA-specific settingsQ) What should an administrator do to configure multi-pathing using software iSCSI?a) Bind the VMkernel ports to the software iSCSI initiatorb) Configure Zoning between the hosts and SAN switchesc) Configure NIC teaming on the associated uplinksd) Ensure jumbo frames are enabled end-to-endQ) A vSphere administrator needs to upgrade a single extent VMFS3 datastore to VMFS5 and expand it to 4TB in size. The storage administrator has already expanded the underlying LUN to 4TB. Which steps should the vSphere administrator take?a) Expand the VMFS3 datastore to 4TB and then upgrade to VMFS5b) Upgrade the datastore to VMFS5, manually change the partition scheme to GPT, and then expand the datastore to 4TBc) Upgrade the datastore to VMFS5 and then expand it to 4TBd) Change the block size of the VMFS3 datastore to 1MB, upgrade the datastore to VMFS5, and expand it to 4TBQ) Which VLAN configuration requires the a switch port to be configured as an access port?a) Private VLANb) External Switch Taggingc) Virtual Guest Taggingd) Virtual Switch TaggingQ) During a physical network reconfiguration, an ESXi host briefly lost connection to the management network. High Availability (HA) began powering off the virtual machines residing on the affected host to be restarted on an unaffected host in the cluster. Which setting should the administrator configure to prevent this type of HA failover during planned maintenance?a) Host isolation responseb) Host monitoringc) VM monitoringd) Admission control"
Price: 169.99  |
| "ECCouncil 312-49 Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Exam" |
| "Sample QuestionsQ) What term is used to describe a cryptographic technique for embedding information into something else for the sole purpose of hiding that information from the casual observer?a) rootkitb) key escrowc) steganographyd) OffsetQ) During the course of an investigation, you locate evidence that may prove the innocence of the suspect of the investigation. You must maintain an unbiased opinion and be objective in your entire fact finding process. Therefore, you report this evidence. This type of evidence is known as:a) Inculpatoryevidenceb) Mandatory evidencec) Exculpatory evidenced) Terrible evidenceQ) If you discover a criminal act while investigating a corporate policy abuse, it becomes a publicsector investigation and should be referred to law enforcement?a) TRUEb) FALSEQ) What binary coding is used most often for e-mail purposes?a) MIMEb) Uuencodec) IMAPd) SMTP"
Price: 159.99  |
